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Differentiability at x = 0 via the limit definition

Consider the function f(x)={x2sin⁡(1/x)x≠00x=0f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 \sin(1/x) & x \neq 0 \\ 0 & x = 0 \end{cases}

Use the limit definition of the derivative, f′(0)=lim⁡h→0f(h)−f(0)h,f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h}, to determine whether ff is differentiable at x=0x = 0. If it is differentiable, state the value of f′(0)f'(0); if it is not, explain why the limit fails to exist.

Hint

Write out the difference quotient f(h)−f(0)h\frac{f(h)-f(0)}{h} explicitly using the formula for f(h)f(h) when h≠0h \neq 0, simplify, and then think about what happens to sin⁡(1/h)\sin(1/h) as h→0h \to 0 compared to the factor multiplying it.

Step-by-step solution

Since f(0)=0f(0) = 0, the difference quotient is f(h)−f(0)h=h2sin⁡(1/h)−0h=hsin⁡(1/h)\frac{f(h) - f(0)}{h} = \frac{h^2 \sin(1/h) - 0}{h} = h \sin(1/h) for h≠0h \neq 0. This expression is exactly what we need to take the limit of as h→0h \to 0.

Although sin⁡(1/h)\sin(1/h) oscillates wildly and has no limit as h→0h \to 0, it is always bounded between −1-1 and 11. So ∣hsin⁡(1/h)∣≤∣h∣|h\sin(1/h)| \le |h|, and by the Squeeze Theorem, lim⁡h→0hsin⁡(1/h)=0\lim_{h\to 0} h\sin(1/h) = 0. Therefore the limit defining f′(0)f'(0) exists and equals 00, so ff is differentiable at x=0x=0 with f′(0)=0f'(0) = 0, even though the graph oscillates infinitely near the origin.

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